Why Biden’s Autopen Scandal Changes Everything

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• Will ANYONE be held accountable? No, I doubt it.

• Original sin Biden's decision to run for reelection.

• It seems like Biden was just an extension of the trans movement. We have men who believe they are women, and with Biden, we had an empty suit who believed he was president. None of that can happen without the support of emotionally/politically motivated individuals who are also morally empty and power hungry.

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• Hey WYLAT hate to see this site go away, but I can imagine the issues trying to keep it going.

  But before I lose contact with you, I had a debate with AI about the nature of Jesus. Maybe you could review it and tell me what you think about my crazy theology.

  https://qr.ae/pAaN5X

  • I'll try to take a look at it later. I've been busy repairing my washing machine, and watching my Grandson. Both seem to be a full time effort. I tore my washer completely apart, only to find that the part I need is now obsolete. I have found a work around though. I hope it works.

    • We really like American home Shield we do have to pay $170 a month but they fixed our air conditioning, replaced our microwave, repaired are stove, they are now replacing our washing machine because like you say they can't find the parts for it and we've only had it about six years but if they can't fix it they will replace it. So we've saved a lot of money with that.

      I'm trying to see if they could replace my brain because they can't fix it.

      • With my washer, there is a plastic balance ring filled with calcium chloride and water. There is so little clearance between that and the front of the outer tub, that just a little wear on the bearings allows it to rub a hole in the plastic. I have found the formula for the CaC12 to H2O ratio, so I am going to refill the ring and seal the hole in the plastic with epoxy. My machine isn't that old either. I hate built in obsolescence. Almost everything else is still available for my washer but that. I just bought the bearings and seals and everything else to rebuild my inner tub, and found that this part was like this.

        Hey, hold out hope. They might be able to fix your brain someday.

        • Our washing machine is a Samsung and it has two hoses that feed the washer and one of them broke They simply don't make it anymore because they keep breaking, so he did a temporary workaround, but we were still having problems, so they're just replacing. So we getting a $900 machine for the cost of the co-pay which is 100. The first thing they had to deal with was our air conditioning about six years ago and they put over $1800 worth of work along with the Freon and it cost me $100.

          And as far as my brain goes, I think it was made in China on a Monday by a group of 12-year-old kids. So there's that.

        • Well...... I filled the ring with the solution, and just epoxied it. Now I just wait for about an hour or so for it to set, then reassemble my washer, and see how it works. On the bright side, I did notice that the hot water inlet valve is starting to corrode a little. So..... I have time to order one to be ready when the one on it dies. Thankfully that's an easy fix. Well.... I guess all of them after this little fiasco will be easy fixes. Comparatively speaking.

  • Geee, good thing that was a short question with not much meat to it (sarc) (eye roll).

    For the most part, I agree with what AI is saying. One thing that I see in your premise to be cautious of, is it teeters, and could find itself in the "oneness" doctrine. I know that is not what you are centered on, but it's there none-the-less. And yes, there are some variations in your (AI) questions, and "oneness." It's not oneness because you still recognize the Father and the Spirit as entitles, and not slight of hand. But it has a slight lean in that direction. And, to be clear, I am not saying that you are pushing or practicing "oneness."

    There is a lot to be considered in the fully man, fully God debate/discussion. Let's be honest, it has been going on for a couple thousand years. Throughout scripture all three are fully God, and yet not three Gods. In the case of Christ's incarnation, He "came in the flesh." And, yes, He IS the second Adam. As for His attributes, He told Nathanael: "I saw you under the fig tree." It is said of Him, that He knows the thoughts and hearts of men. Something that is also attributed to the Father. Demons recognized Him for who He is. The elements obey Him, and, He says: "Before Abraham was, I am." He existed from "the beginning." In the beginning GOD!

    One thing that helps clear some of this up, can be found in the three pieces of Matzo at Passover. The piece in the middle is brought out, broken in half, half is hidden, half is placed in its origin point, in the midst of the other two "whole" pieces. The piece hidden is brought forth (found), and it is "this piece" that Jesus says: "This is My body which is broken for you." One half (the divine) remains safely in the "One" which consist of the other two. One half (the flesh) is broken and buried (to be found by the children), and received. These two halves start out as one whole.

    I thought AI made a good and valid point concerning "veiling." That's all I've got for now, it's been a long day.

    P.S.
    I am honored by you asking my opinion concerning this.

    • Thanks for your input. I'm deftly not in the oneness camp, and I struggle to see how this is even close, but then I'm not an expert at oneness theology.

      I understand that I know in part, and we prophesy in part. And I definitely don't want to establish "another Jesus", one that cannot save. And as you probably know, my dad was a Methodist minister, and I heard him say that a lot, Jesus was fully God and fully man. It's possible I'm making too much of a deal about the word "fully". But what did Jesus empty himself of in order to become a man if he is still fully God?

      My position is you can't take the personhood out of the person, so Jesus never stopped being who he was, he just became fully human and thus submitted himself to the limitations of humanity. Fully God cannot be tempted with sin, yet Jesus was. Fully God knows all things, yet Jesus said, "Who touched me?".

      Jesus was obviously confined to the body thus was not omnipresent. His ability to see someone under the fig tree, in my opinion, was simply a gift of the Spirit. https://qr.ae/pAawAo

      Luke 4:14
      “Jesus returned to Galilee in the power of the Spirit, and news about Him spread through the whole countryside.”

      It doesn't say that Jesus returned to Galilee in the power of his own divinity.

      Matthew 12:28
      “But if I cast out demons by the Spirit of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you.”

      It doesn't say that "I cast out demons because I'm fully God"

      Again, I don't think Jesus had "fully God" in his back pocket to pull it out when necessary. I remember my dad preaching about the miracles that Jesus did in his position was that Jesus could do those because he was God. So my question is, did God become flesh or did he just play-act?

      I understand how this sounds to the Orthodox ears because I grew up in the church. But Jesus's ministry was an offense to the Orthodox ears of the religious leaders of his time. So this is my attempt to work this thing out in my mind, knowing that if I could fully understand God, then he would not be God. I fully understand I could be wrong when trying to make this distinction, but I'm inclined to take Scripture literally, and when it says that God became fully human, I tend to try to understand that.

      This identity of Christ being fully God and fully man doesn't show up anywhere in Scripture. Fully man does, but the closest Scripture gets to "fully God" is Colossians 2:9 (KJV) "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily."

      I simply don't see this verse is one of many verses proving that Jesus was God. I see this verse showing how the man Christ Jesus was able to minister and do what he did. We all have the Godhead in us if we are born again. But I don't think any of us can fully manifest that because of the issues of the flesh. Even though we go from glory to glory and we learn more and more how to die of the flesh, we can never be at the level Jesus was as a man, because he did not start with any unredeemed flesh, because he was without sin.

      But I think that's enough rambling for me, but I do like to be challenged because that's how I learn. I'm not dogmatic about my position on this because I don't think I've been challenged enough. AI brought out some really good points that I have to work out, and so have you.

      So I am a work in progress and I don't think I'm ready to nail my thesis on the door of any churches as yet, but maybe next week :-)

      • It's possible I'm making too much of a deal about the word "fully". But what did Jesus empty himself of in order to become a man if he is still fully God?
        My position is you can't take the personhood out of the person, so Jesus never stopped being who he was, he just became fully human and thus submitted himself to the limitations of humanity. Fully God cannot be tempted with sin, yet Jesus was. Fully God knows all things, yet Jesus said, "Who touched me?".

        Ok, let's start here.....
        "The FLESH" is, and always will be subject to God. So, in that, "emptying" if you will is a settling of the conflict that would arise between that which is subjected and that in whom it is subjected to. Or, being creation and creator at the same time. Although, the term used is: "The Word BECAME flesh, and dwelt among us. Therefore, not "created" per se. One would have to decrease, or "empty." In that, He "as/in flesh" became subject to the Father.
        The "emptying" (if you will) is that He who is not flesh, took upon Himself flesh, in order to fulfill redemption, in that, sin is "of the flesh." So therefore, He had to take upon Himself flesh, live righteously, and the flesh had to be crucified for the remission of sins pertaining to the flesh.

        Also, pertaining to the incarnation, and this statement from you....
        We all have the Godhead in us if we are born again.

        The difference being, In Christ, He IS "the first born:, but not "born again." Up until Christ, God had dwelt with (certain) men in one way or another, but NOT IN THE FLESH. To understand some of this, we must also look at "the new creation." GOD IN MAN. Until Christ, that was not possible, yet now it is. He being "the first born" of that "new creation." Unlike with us, because that which began in Mary was/is Holy, it/He was brought forth uncorrupted. And this is where the hair splitting begins. Because that which is external (the flesh) is weak, subject to temptation...... And that which is internal (The Word of God) is not. He, the Word of God took upon Himself flesh, becoming a little less than the angels in that. Yet, in that flesh dwelt the fullness of the Godhead bodily. It's a bit of an enigma.

        And so, this idea of God IN man, in flesh, had not existed until this point in history. But however, was predetermined before the foundation of the earth. < This is a whole other subject.

        Concerning Lk. 4:14, I would say that this is because a certain restraint (if you will) was removed at the baptism and pronouncement (by God the Father) at Jesus' baptism by John. Fulfilling all righteousness. The same could be said concerning Mt. 12:28. It was at John's baptism of Jesus that the Spirit descended upon Him like a dove. The Father's pronouncement of "This is My Son in whom I am well pleased." Is "THE FATHER" saying, "THIS IS MY SON." And so therefore scripture tells us that Jesus went and did these things. Why, how? "I of mine own self can do nothing, but what "THE SON" sees "THE FATHER" do, that I do. This point with John is a pivotal point in the story.

        I will stop at this point to hear your ramblings. :-)

        • "The Word BECAME flesh, and dwelt among us. Therefore, not "created" per se.
          (((So you don’t think when God created the necessary DNA components of the egg in Mary something new didn’t develop? Because the flesh that Jesus was encased in showed the same type of limitations of all men. In fact in order to become a high priest who us he had to feel the weakness and infirmities that we did.)))

          One would have to decrease, or "empty." In that, He "as/in flesh" became subject to the Father.
          The "emptying" (if you will) is that He who is not flesh, took upon Himself flesh, in order to fulfill redemption, in that, sin is "of the flesh." So therefore, He had to take upon Himself flesh, live righteously, and the flesh had to be crucified for the remission of sins pertaining to the flesh.
          ((((And that flesh got weary, hungry, sleepy because he became fully human. And so we did have to become the 2nd Adam in order to pay the price for sin is he became sin for us in a way I don’t fully understand but I accept. When that happens the father had to turn away, “my God, my God why have thou forsaken me?”. And that made him available for hell which I believe he went there I just don’t know how long he stayed there. Because on the way to his resurrection he had to preach to the saints in paradise.)))

          The difference being, In Christ, He IS "the first born:, but not "born again." Up until Christ, God had dwelt with (certain) men in one way or another, but NOT IN THE FLESH. To understand some of this, we must also look at "the new creation." GOD IN MAN. Until Christ, that was not possible, yet now it is. He being "the first born" of that "new creation." Unlike with us, because that which began in Mary was/is Holy, it/He was brought forth uncorrupted. And this is where the hair splitting begins. Because that which is external (the flesh) is weak, subject to temptation...... And that which is internal (The Word of God) is not. He, the Word of God took upon Himself flesh, becoming a little less than the angels in that. Yet, in that flesh dwelt the fullness of the Godhead bodily. It's a bit of an enigma.

          (((I can accept all of the without believing he didn’t give up anything in the incarnation. He was rich and yet he became poor.)))

          And so, this idea of God IN man, in flesh, had not existed until this point in history. But however, was predetermined before the foundation of the earth. < This is a whole other subject. (((I think I have some grasp how something can be established before the foundation of the earth it wasn’t manifested until 2000 years ago. Is simply the difference between the reality of eternity compared to that within space and time. These appear to be 2 separate realities that are necessarily running in sequence. God can see the beginning and the end of our lives you before we became flesh on this earth. Because time is a physical property is Einstein proved and however things pass in heaven is not based on physical time. So in a way God is watching a movie before the actors were even born.))) Concerning Lk. 4:14, I would say that this is because a certain restraint (if you will) was removed at the baptism and pronouncement (by God the Father) at Jesus' baptism by John. Fulfilling all righteousness. (((But you seem to be saying that the miracles that Jesus did were due to his inherent Godhood whereas I would say it was due to the work of the Holy Spirit. Jesus said we would do the same works and is not because we have some inherent Godhood but because we have God the Holy Spirit within us working through us. So it seems to me that your saying he unveiled more of his Godhood after the Holy Spirit came upon him. And in a Trinitarian sense I can sort of see that even though he was fully human who we was was God. And that brings us back to “I can do nothing of myself” and I interpret that is being I am fully human and I am totally dependent on the power of the Holy Ghost to fulfill my ministry. The same could be said concerning Mt. 12:28. It was at John's baptism of Jesus that the Spirit descended upon Him like a dove. The Father's pronouncement of "This is My Son in whom I am well pleased." Is "THE FATHER" saying, "THIS IS MY SON." And so therefore scripture tells us that Jesus went and did these things. Why, how? "I of mine own self can do nothing, but what "THE SON" sees "THE FATHER" do, that I do. This point with John is a pivotal point in the story. (((And we you might both interpret this slightly different. As fully human Jesus could not turn water into wine but when he was inspired by the Spirit of the Father he had a vision of the father doing just that and so that was his confirmation that he could release the Spirits power to perform that miracle. It seems to me that is what you feel is he unveiled his Godhood power to do that. So this is definitely a hairsplitting corundum that I have not fully worked out. But I do appreciate your input.)))

        • "Because on the way to his resurrection he had to preach to the saints in paradise.)))"??????

        • 1 Peter 3:18–20
          “...He was put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit, in which He went and proclaimed to the spirits in prison...”

          Ephesians 4:8–9
          “When He ascended on high, He led captivity captive... Now this, ‘He ascended’—what does it mean but that He also descended into the lower parts of the earth?”

          The idea of Jesus preaching to or freeing the Old Testament saints in Paradise comes from combining:

          Luke 23:43 (Paradise)

          Ephesians 4:8–9 (descent and leading captives)

          1 Peter 3:18–20 (proclamation to spirits)

          The traditional doctrine (especially in early Christianity and Catholicism) is that Jesus descended to the place of the righteous dead, announced His victory, and brought them into heaven after His resurrection.

        • Human beings are never called "spirits." Where human spirits are referred to it is always qualified and clarified by speaking of them as "spirits of men" Hebrews 12:23 To the general assembly and church of the firstborn, which are written in heaven, and to God the Judge of all, and to the spirits of just men made perfect, "spirits of all flesh" Numbers 16:22 And they fell upon their faces, and said, O God, the God of the spirits of all flesh, shall one man sin, and wilt thou be wroth with all the congregation? Numbers 27:16 Let the LORD, the God of the spirits of all flesh, set a man over the congregation, and "spirits of the prophets" 1 Corinthians 14:32 And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets. People have spirits, but they are not spirits. Where the word "spirits" is used without such qualifications it refers to spirit beings: Psalm 104:4 Who maketh his angels spirits; his ministers a flaming fire: Hebrews 1:7 And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels' spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire. Hebrews 1:14 Are they not all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation?

        • When it comes to the miracle side of things, I don't see it as a limited or inspired (by the Father) thing. Rather, all recorded miracles in the New Testament were signs of fulfilled prophecy. Or rather a fulfillment of prophecy as well as pictures of that to come, that had to happen.

          Concerning "fully God, fully man," it is a paradoxical issue, in which one must understand God, and man. "Now I know in part, but then will I know also as I am known." Which is why this is a discussion that has been going on for many, many years.

          I would also add that Christ's subjugation of the flesh to the Father is an example of how our flesh is to be subjugated to Him.

        • https://uploads.disquscdn.com/images/a5fe83bb5e0fe2a98d885b9d232e5dfae68946bd8ee797a43cdd4c0c9cd1b28c.png
          I realize that this discussion has gone on for many, many years but I'm here to put a period on it :-)

          I agree that these miracles fulfilled prophecy because foretelling prophecy is simply the spirit telling us what is already seen since the foundation of the world.

          And given the Scriptures that I've posted here, it goes along with Jesus saying I can't do anything on my own, but I do what I see the Father do.

          And the Spirit of the Father and the Glory of the Father are the manifestation of the Holy Spirit in someone's life. "The glory you have given me I give to them."

          Hebrews 1:3
          “He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of His nature...”

          2 Corinthians 4:6
          “For God, who said, ‘Let light shine out of darkness,’ has shone in our hearts to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ.”

          It appears to me from reading Scripture that the second person of the Godhead had inherent glory as being God, but He emptied Himself in order to become fully human. In the glory that he displayed in my opinion, came from his Father through the Holy Ghost, and his inherent glory was restored to him after the resurrection.

          John 17:4–5 (before the crucifixion, Jesus praying)
          “I glorified You on earth, having accomplished the work that You gave Me to do. And now, Father, glorify Me in Your own presence with the glory that I had with You before the world existed.”

          Hebrews 1:3–4
          “He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of His nature... After making purification for sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much superior to angels...”

    • I would like to add the following to the above, for any who don't understand these other doctrines.......

      These are "in a nut shell."

      ONENESS - That there is "one" God (which I believe, and scripture states) who is the Father, who then became the Son, and dwelt among us, and upon His ascension, returned as the Holy Spirit.
      In the case of this doctrine, one (among many) questions that I would ask is... "If the Father became Jesus, Who was Jesus praying to??"

      MORMONISM - That Elohim was a man, who became "a" God, who lives on planet Kolob producing spiritual sons and daughters, of which Jesus and Lucifer were two. Thus to a degree, making the two equal. At which time, Jesus became a man, who like His father, became "a" God. If one acts proper, and follows the ways of Jesus, they too can become God, and live on a planet producing spiritual sons and daughters.

      JEHOVAH WITNESS - That there is "one" God - the Father, and that Jesus is "a" god (little g). But still nothing more than a man, and the Holy Spirit is just the acting force of the Father. That if they do enough works (door to door, and the ingesting of Watchtower doctrine), they will have the ability to become one of the 144,000 to live and reign in Heaven. They also state that Jesus is either "man" or "Michael the Arch-Angel," but NOT God (big G).

      Each of these to an extent, denies the deity of Christ Jesus, and does that by placing Him as "just a man."

      To an extent, even the Catholic church overshadows His deity through the immaculate conception, in that, Mary was immaculately conceived in order to immaculately conceive Christ. And she is exalted in some cases more than Christ. ie. some churches named "THE HOLY MOTHER and child." "THE HOLY MOTHER and infant." and such.

      • That's a nice and important synopsis of each of those issues. My position is that Jesus was not "just a man" because who he was was God, but the New Testament said he became fully human like we are, yet without sin, which made him the perfect Lamb of God. And as a priest, Hebrews said priests are taken from among men. So God had to become fully human in Jesus in order to become a mediator between God and man.

        And of course, our brain is in danger of boiling over when it tries to set everything in proper order.

        So I understand the orthodox view, but I think it denies Scripture in part. I understand why the early church was very careful to present Jesus as God, which I have no problem with because Jesus was/is God, he created everything that was created, and he holds everything together by the power of his word.

        Science doesn't exactly know what holds this universe together at its most elemental pieces, and they probably don't have a full picture of the most elemental parts of our physical existence. Some are saying that the material world is a hologram. If that's true, it's held together and projected by the word of God.

        So it's very possible and most likely that my 3-pound brain will never fully understand this. Of course, it always could be 11/2 pounds.

        But I have been deftly challenged by the "orthodox" view on this issue, I just have not gotten a peace about the fundamental truth here. So I appreciate your input, maybe you could get me fixed one day, my wife would appreciate it, but we don't need to go there.